> By blind-testing it that dimension is lost. It doesn't produce any more "pure" result, because the setup is artificial to begin with. I agree that the result

> By blind-testing it that dimension is lost. It doesn't produce any more "pure" result, because the setup is artificial to begin with. I agree that the results of a properly controlled blind tasting are not more "valid" than the results of enjoying a coffee in a casual setting. However, they are helpful in indicating how much of that casual experience of a coffee is due to the contextual and psychological elements of the experience and how much is a result of the intrinsic qualities of the cup of coffee itself. I think this is interesting in its own terms. I don't think the premise is flawed, because the premise is not "a double-blind taste test will establish whether subjective taste is true or false", but rather "a double-blind taste test will indicate to what degree subjective taste is determined strictly by the substance being tasted".