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Even being 2:1 why would you expect those results being reflected anywhere else? Why would an employer hire from one of the two pools of people where one haves
by ivanca 13y ago
Even being 2:1 why would you expect those results being reflected anywhere else? Why would an employer hire from one of the two pools of people where one haves 50% less chance of being good enough for the position?
- rayiner 13y agoIf an employer just hired people with perfect SAT math scores, you'd expect a 2:1 distribution. If an employer just hired men, because they were twice as likely to have a high SAT math score, then the employer would be retarded because for both genders there is over a 99% chance that any given person will not have a high SAT math score.
- ivanca 13y agoNot a "high" but a better, and that's usually enough; and the gap seems to be increasing[0]. [0]http://www.aei-ideas.org/2012/09/2012-sat-test-results-a-huge-gender-math-gap-persists-with-a-33-point-advantage-for-high-school-boys/ http://www.aei-ideas.org/2012/09/2012-sat-test-results-a-hug...