4 ms·
It is argued in one of the comments (on the link) that this is a response to the civil rights movement of the '60s - if you can't legally exclude the Minority E
by tehwalrus 13y ago
It is argued in one of the comments (on the link) that this is a response to the civil rights movement of the '60s - if you can't legally exclude the Minority Ethnic community from voting, lock them all up instead.
I'm not saying that's a true analysis, but it's certainly one way to make this story seriously political. Even if you just make it about stopping poor people voting, instead of some other subdivision, it's still leaks out of the "law and order" debate.
- tootie 13y agoThat's a roundabout argument and I don't think you can prove any criminal intent about that. Unless you can prove that the political process encourages the targeting of minorities, then it's just an enforcement issue. And not every state will ban you from voting for a non-violent offense.
- tehwalrus 13y agoIt doesn't have to be "criminal" on the part of the law makers/enforcers to be a political issue - your bar is too high there. cf "institutionally racist"[1]. On the point of who bans you from voting, I think that's hardly the point - the types of crimes that are common in these communities are felonies. [1] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Institutional_racism http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Institutional_racism