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No you can't. This is one of the first fallacies taught in Logic 101. If A then B, does not mean if !A then !B.
by PakG1 13y ago
No you can't. This is one of the first fallacies taught in Logic 101. If A then B, does not mean if !A then !B.
- _delirium 13y agoHis or her point is that the "evidence" at hand can be rationalized either way. That is because there is no causal evidence about the relationship between hunger and productivity adduced here.
- PakG1 13y agoThanks for clarifying the point for me instead of simply downvoting. I see what was meant here now. But I think the point could have been made better by pointing out the lack of causal evidence, rather than complaining how it could be rationalized because pretty much anything in the world can be rationalized if you try hard enough.
- seabee 13y agoThe point was made best because it presented a counterexample. Merely pointing out 'ad-hoc fallacy' (or similarly, my pet hate 'citation needed') might make the author and a few other people feel good about themselves for seeing the flaws, but it's a lazy response which adds the smallest value greater than saying "I disagree", and is better suited to a points-scoring exercise rather than a discussion.