How exactly does one qualify x as cheaper than y when the comparison requires y to omit a massive economic component: the opportunity cost or value of one's tim

How exactly does one qualify x as cheaper than y when the comparison requires y to omit a massive economic component: the opportunity cost or value of one's time? Additionally, why propose such an intrinsically inefficient model? What about using a hostel on M, Tu, W, and only fly in M AM and out Th PM? Monthly commute ~28 hours, quality of living benefits, and probably save even more $. Can someone from the EU comment on the potential tax benefits of an international live/work arrangement?