Both this article and the book its describing seem to mistake possible explanation for definitive or even probable explanation. The article notes that the gen

Both this article and the book its describing seem to mistake possible explanation for definitive or even probable explanation. The article notes that the gender differences are smaller in less developed societies and the authors conjecture that actualization could be the cause. Sure. It could be. It could also be that less developed societies generally have less specialization and fewer members, and thus less hierarchical groups, meaning that women don't feel the need to conform to a social strata within their society. All three explanations seem possible to me. Given this, I'm barely more informed than when I started. I'd have liked this piece to put in a little more sweat in actual verification and less hand-wavy brainstorming.