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>"No, your sequence IS distinguishable from a uniform sequence." No, it is not distinguishable. The definition according to wikipedia: The discrete uniform dis
by pmelendez 13y ago
>"No, your sequence IS distinguishable from a uniform sequence."
No, it is not distinguishable. The definition according to wikipedia: The discrete uniform distribution is a symmetric probability distribution whereby a finite number of values are equally likely to be observed; every one of n values has equal probability 1/n.
So the distribution is indeed uniform but it fails in being random.
- buo 13y agoThe point is that, in the context of the paper, you are supposed to group consecutive sequence elements and find their distribution. Consider the sequence 1,2,1,2,1,2,1.... When you take elements one at a time, you have a uniform distribution, but the sequence is clearly not random. However, when you take elements two at a time, you have; 12,12,12,12... In this case, the distribution is not uniform, which indicates non-randomness. The paper's definition implies that you're grouping the sequence elements like this and, for all groupings, you find uniform distributions. This is of course common knowledge to experts, and is made clear in the body of the paper.
- betterunix 13y agoActually, it is more general than that. Any polynomial time algorithm that takes as input a sequence and which has access to a unbounded source of uniform random numbers (i.e. a "true" random number generator) should output a 1 when given a uniform random sequence with "nearly" the same probability as when given the output of a PRNG ("nearly" here means within a negligible amount e.g. the algorithm might just try to guess the PRNG seed). In other words, Pr[A(prng(seed, n))] - Pr[A(uniform(n))] < 1/negl(n) Where for all polynomial functions p(n), there exists an N such that for all n > N, 1/p(n) > 1/negl(n); uniform(n) is an n element long uniform random sequence, and prng(seed, n) is the first n elements of the output of the PRNG for a (uniform) random seed. This is a common definition in cryptography and a variant is mentioned further down in the paper in Section 2.
- mcherm 13y agoAh, so your actual complaint was that they used the term "uniform sequence" as shorthand for the more accurate "uniformly random sequence".
- betterunix 13y agoAll that says is that 1,2,1,2,1,2... is a possible uniform random sequence. It is not the only such sequence, and it is a very unlikely sequence. The notion of "distinguishible" here refers to an experiment where an algorithm can receive one of two possible inputs, with equal probability: a sequence of uniformly sampled numbers, or a sequence generated by a PRNG. If the PRNG is secure, the algorithm should output "1" when it receives the uniform sequence with (very nearly i.e. different by a negligible amount) equal probability as when it receives the PRNG's sequence. So, for example, if you test if even indexed elements are 1 and odd indexed elements are 2, and output 1 if both tests pass, then you will almost never output 1 for a uniform sequence; on the other hand, if the PRNG always and very frequently outputs 1,2,1,2,1,2... then you will always or very frequently output 1 when you get the PRNG's sequence as input, and thus your probability of outputting a 1 is greater in that case.
- jfarmer 13y agoWhat is "...", here? If it's infinite then we're talking about something abstract and you need to be more precise. If we're talking about something finite then you need the specify the finite-ness. Note that (1,2,1,2,...,1,2) is not a "distribution," as you seem to be saying. It's a sequence of values drawn from a distribution. For a fixed length, is it possible for the sequence (1,2,1,2,1,2,...,1,2) to be drawn from a uniformly random distribution that contains 1 and 2 as possible values? Yes. How likely is it? It depends on the number of possible values in the distribution and the length of the sequence. The more values besides 1 and 2 and the longer the sequence, the less likely that sequence will have been drawn from a uniformly random distribution. In fact, as the length of the sequence increases, the probability of any particular sequence approaches 0 but is always greater than 0. The crux of your confusion appears to be that you think "distinguishable" means "a sequence that couldn't possibly have been drawn from a particular distribution," which is not the case.
- pmelendez 13y agoPlease note that I am not the OC. It seems like you wrote in the wrong thread (for instance, I didn't use any ellipsis on my comment)
- deleted 13y ago[deleted]