No, not only naively. Absolutely. The trick is that the strength of the evidence is not equivalent. It is not correct to say "Evidence of strong evidence is st

No, not only naively. Absolutely. The trick is that the strength of the evidence is not equivalent. It is not correct to say "Evidence of strong evidence is strong evidence of absence". More generally, A is strong evidence of B does not imply that ¬A is strong evidence of ¬B.