3 ms·
This reminds me of Kant. Typically the argument is that social interaction is naturally engaged upon by both sides for a purpose -- that is, as means to an end
by delluminatus 13y ago
This reminds me of Kant.
Typically the argument is that social interaction is naturally engaged upon by both sides for a purpose -- that is, as means to an end. However, it can be said to be immoral to treat other humans in the same way you would treat, say, a tool.
Basically, you can engage in mutually beneficial interactions, but once you begin to interact with people in a way that neglects them (i.e. is only beneficial to you), you cross the line into immoral behavior.
For example: a typical job is a mutually beneficial arrangement. One party agrees to work and the other party agrees to pay. In this sense both parties are respecting the others' decision-making capacity. Neither is using the other in a one-sided way. However, in the case of slavery, we see a one-sided relationship in which the slave does not benefit at all, and into which he would never rationally enter. This is a case of treating someone as purely a means to an end.
- bscofield 13y agoIt should: I referenced the second formulation of the categorical imperative in the post.