3 ms·
I'd be curious to see an example of a dialect in which "to affect change" is more correct than "to effect change"?
by mtinkerhess 13y ago
I'd be curious to see an example of a dialect in which "to affect change" is more correct than "to effect change"?
- tedunangst 13y agoSome people seem to like pushing descriptivism too far. "Somebody said it, therefore it's correct."
- hdevalence 13y agoWhat basis for judgements of correctness would you suggest, if not facts about how English speakers speak English?
- mtinkerhess 13y agoHow about facts about what nearly all English speakers agree is the correct usage?
- Kaizyn 13y agoFor correctness, it should be how educated speakers speak English. In this case, I would also settle for "how published authors write English."
- tedunangst 13y agoA majority, or at least a substantial minority? (Don't interpret common mistakes as proof of correctness. Most (all?) people who spell 'lose' as 'loose' will at least acknowledge their mistake when it's pointed it out. Nobody thinks 'loose' is actually correct in their "not prestige" dialect.)
- deleted 13y ago[deleted]
- FkZ 13y agoNeither one is more correct in isolation as they mean different things.