3 ms·
Admittedly with a European viewpoint, either common law based (UK) or administrative law based (France, Belgium), there have been cases where commercial was hel
by randomhunt 13y ago
Admittedly with a European viewpoint, either common law based (UK) or administrative law based (France, Belgium), there have been cases where commercial was held to mean has the company benefited in a tangible way from its use of such licenced software.
Although if you speak to a lawyer I'm sure their training would immediately start highlighting this as a concern I don't believe it should be in the vast majority of cases. Wasn't there an article on HN a few days ago basically summarising this type of concern under "so sue me" (minus expletives)
- arethuza 13y agoI wonder what would happen here in Scotland - we don't have punitive damages so the most you can be awarded in court is the loss you can demonstrate to have suffered. So if I use a software package commercially and don't pay for it perhaps the maximum I could be sued for in the local courts would be the license fee I didn't pay. If there is no "commercial" license then could it really be said that a loss has been suffered? [NB I know contracts and licenses usually have clauses stating the jurisdiction where disputes will be resolved]
- AaronFriel 13y agoI suspect they would say that the commercial value of their solver, for which no publicly available license exists, is some very high dollar amount which they will offer to you as a courtesy.