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The article implies that the Medical Board believed he may have been impaired because of the use of drugs or alcohol. So he could have appeared reasonably compe
by anthuswilliams 13y ago
The article implies that the Medical Board believed he may have been impaired because of the use of drugs or alcohol. So he could have appeared reasonably competent before he developed those problems.
- wissler 13y agoYeah, the same board that let him keep practicing. I'll need evidence to believe that the "Doctor" wasn't incompetent the whole way through. Is it possible that something went wrong with his brain? Might he have a tumor or something that's yet to be discovered? Sure. But that's speculation. What's real is the incompetence that's running amok in our institutions. That's the nearest explanation rooted in actual evidence, so I'll go with that one.