Normal distribution of a sample scales with sigma, and inverse to sqrt(n-1), so effect size is more important than sample size. That's all the guy who originall

Normal distribution of a sample scales with sigma, and inverse to sqrt(n-1), so effect size is more important than sample size. That's all the guy who originally posted was talking about. I don't think anyone on hn won't know this. Everyone is just quibbling over the wording. Your new point is very good, and I'd expect someone has used the correlation != causation argument too.