Interesting question - having always used the expression "I'm yet to do XXX" I didn't even realise how odd it might look to those unfamiliar with it. It's pret

Interesting question - having always used the expression "I'm yet to do XXX" I didn't even realise how odd it might look to those unfamiliar with it. It's pretty standard English IMO, certain nothing I'd consider affectatious the way the use of whom absolutely can be. Some discussion here: http://www.englishforums.com/English/Versus/djxxm/post.htm http://www.englishforums.com/English/Versus/djxxm/post.htm including "I am yet to..." and "I have yet to..." express exactly the same sentiment. The use of "am" in this context is a throwback to the now obsolete use of "to be" as the auxiliary verb in the present perfect conjugation of certain verbs. Eg, I am come. Languages such as German and French continue to use both "to be" and "to have" as auxiliary verbs. "I have come" translates in German to "ich bin gekommen" and in French to "je suis venu".