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Just because I know the gap is explainable through cultural differences doesn't mean that I implied I understood why there is no phylogenetic divergence with re
by zackattack 18y ago
Just because I know the gap is explainable through cultural differences doesn't mean that I implied I understood why there is no phylogenetic divergence with respect to genes for mathematical reasoning.
Here is your argument
genetics/evolution => In this world, there is some sexual behavioral dimorphism.
&&
2009 sat => In America, there is a specific type of sexual behavioral dimorphism.
Here is my argument
math tests => female performance at mathematics varies culturally => genetics does not determine everything and we have to take environment into account
And let me be absolutely clear that I am not suggesting that mathematical ability is not heritable. See this study for evidence that it is indeed:
[1] www.atypon-link.com/AAP/doi/pdf/10.1375/twin.8.6.585
P.S. I believe religion is a social phenomenon that makes much sense (as to why it exists, and, as you probably care, why it came into existence!) with a valid psychological perspective. And I am willing to elaborate on my logic if you are curious.
- thras 18y agoYou have proposed a mechanism. Now Occam's razor it! You have replaced a simple explanation for which abundant evidence exists with a complicated explanation. You could spend time inventing even more complications for your theory to explain things like why there aren't any cultures that have the opposite effect on female mathematical behaviour, and why very high mathematical ability seems to be linked to androgyny in females, or you could just junk the theory as unlikely. Unless you'd rather rather say something politically correct than true, that is. But nobody would chose opinions about the world like that, would they?