3 ms·

Not sure what you mean, since someone who owns a house doesn't have a land lord.

• blibble 14y ago
  if she owns the property but not the land (i.e. the house is a leasehold instead of a freehold), she has a landlord
  • MacsHeadroom 14y ago
    Sounds like feudalism.
    • blibble 14y ago
      that is where it all originates from: our property/land laws are all built on medieval law, as we haven't had a revolution to shake things up! houses are nearly always freeholds, whereas flats (apartments) are normally leaseholds, as it would be unfair if one flat owning tenant has land rights over the others. recently the government has given leaseholders the right to purchase the freehold from their landlord (if they all agree), but this involves setting up a company that all leaseholders are shareholders/directors of, with all the rights and responsibilities that that entails.
      • arethuza 14y ago
        "whereas flats (apartments) are normally leaseholds" Must be an English thing, that is certainly not the case in Scotland.
  • drcode 14y ago
    Interesting- But in that case the problem (probably) is that you have to pay super high taxes when you sell land (or they wouldn't have such weird arrangements.) This is a separate issue from the deflationary aspects of land I think.