>it's the sign of someone consciously choosing to profit from facilitating criminal activity. And it can be totally valid to punish one person who helps out man

>it's the sign of someone consciously choosing to profit from facilitating criminal activity. And it can be totally valid to punish one person who helps out many criminals more harshly than one single criminal. It is now a matter of public record that HSBC, Wachovia, JP Morgan, and others have laundered huge sums of 'drug money' in operations ongoing for many years. So, for those individuals and companies who continue to do business with the banks involved, are they "consciously choosing to profit from facilitating criminal activity"? Can a businessman refuse service to someone they suspect are involved in criminal activity? Does a businessman have a duty to refuse service to someone they suspect are involved in criminal activity?