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"John wrote 'had'. James wrote 'had had'. James' answer had a better effect on the teacher."

• crntaylor 14y ago
  James's answer had had a better effect on the teacher ;)
  • deleted 14y ago
    [deleted]
  • homonculus 14y ago
    Only if the previous two sentences contain "had written."
    • gruseom 14y ago
      No, crntaylor has it right: we're supposed to understand that James wrote what he did because it had had a better effect on the teacher in the past. That's how you can justify squeezing that one last "had" in there.