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Because 68% institutional ownership and <0% inside ownership means that they are owned by Wall St, literally and figuratively. http://finance.yahoo.com/q/mh?s=
by jpdoctor 14y ago
Because 68% institutional ownership and <0% inside ownership means that they are owned by Wall St, literally and figuratively.
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/mh?s=AAPL+Major+Holders http://finance.yahoo.com/q/mh?s=AAPL+Major+Holders
- raganwald 14y agoAnd are these estimates coming from the major holders? No, they are coming from brokers and analysts. "Wall Street" is several different things, and conflating them in this case does nobody any good. If and when Al Gore holds a press conference and tells Tim Cook what he wants Apple to do, we can talk about the shareholders running the company. But some snot-nosed analyst writing a research report estimating sales or material costs or whatever is not the same thing as owning the company and directing its activities.
- jpdoctor 14y ago> And are these estimates coming from the major holders? No, they are coming from brokers and analysts. That is correct, and if the OP had asked a different question, then that would be a good answer.
- Retric 14y agoInstitutional ownership does not mean what you think it means. Pension funds are not Wall St.
- jpdoctor 14y agoYes, Folks like Calpers sometimes differ in opinions. But rarely do they take the opposite viewpoint.