2 ms·

Based on what data can you "directly say that the risk of getting sexually assaulted is minimum 20x larger at the 5% conference than the 50%"?

• belorn 14y ago
  Let's make up some numbers, and let's pick say 200 members conference. Let's also say that each male participant is a equal risk of being a person who commit a sexual assault, and that risk is 10%. 50%/50% distribution: 100 male participants, 100 female participants number of sexual assaults: 100x10% = 10 *Risk for each female participant: 10/100 = 0.1 5%/95% distribution: 190 males, 10 females number of sexual assaults: 190x10% = 19 *Risk for each female: 19/10 = 1.9 *Risk compared: 0.1 vs 1.9 = 0.1/1.9 = 19x Okey, not 20x, I rounded the number 19x to 20x. It also assumes that: A), Female to Female sexual assault is 0. Not true, but close enough in regard to what is reported. B), Regardless to number of females, the risk of each male participant stays the same. If the 50%/50% actually has a higher number of assaults in practice, then the risk difference between the two type of conferences actually drop.