4 ms·
The clue is in the name: the person who owns the "copyright" is the one who has the right to copy it. This has been the case since the Licensing of the Press Ac
by rvkennedy 14y ago
The clue is in the name: the person who owns the "copyright" is the one who has the right to copy it. This has been the case since the Licensing of the Press Act of 1662, so we shouldn't be shocked by it.
You can't transfer ownership of the IP to the Avengers Movie, because only one person or entity at a time can own it. That's why for example, we license software as developers, instead of selling it to the end user.
- taproot 14y agoIf transfer of ownership never takes place, then why do they keep trying to call it theft? Sorry, couldn't help myself.
- utilitron 14y agoYou are thinking of larceny. If you had an idea for a product and told me about it, and I then took that idea and used it. That would still be theft. It wasn't MY idea. Theft can exist as a metaphysical object. The theft in question is production/distribution rights.