Where does this idea that income inequality indicates the downfall of a civilisation come from? It doesn't seem to be historically true, given the vast income i

Where does this idea that income inequality indicates the downfall of a civilisation come from? It doesn't seem to be historically true, given the vast income inequality in, say, Regency England, or pretty much any part of classical Roman history after the early Republic, or, hell, pretty much any civilisation ever that lasted any amount of time had some kind of aristocracy with all the inequality that entails...