I read your second article on SSRIs and I'm confused at the point you're trying to make. The article (written in 2007) concludes that an over-reaction to the Br

I read your second article on SSRIs and I'm confused at the point you're trying to make. The article (written in 2007) concludes that an over-reaction to the British journal's reports that SSRIs increase suicidal ideation (ergo suicide) may have actually caused more suicides due to under-prescription of SSRIs in adolescents. The article cites many university studies which show that use of SSRIs actually coincided with a decreased risk of suicidal ideation. Is there more recent evidence to suggest the British studies were correct? I hear a lot of anecdotal evidence when SSRIs and other anti-depressants are discussed, which I agree is important because everyone can react differently to them and doctors and patients should be aware of what may occur, but the article you linked to actually states that the clinical evidence is in support of SSRI prescription in all age groups with major depression. EDIT: I do note that the article mentions the GSK settlement with Spitzer, and regardless of whether the studies hold true, they should not have been covered up unless there was a question to the scientific standards of the trials.