3 ms·
This strongly depends on the definition of poverty. If poverty is: a) Objectively defined, such as "no person goes hungry" ... then I think this statement ma
by codex 14y ago
This strongly depends on the definition of poverty. If poverty is:
a) Objectively defined, such as "no person goes hungry"
... then I think this statement may be true.
However, if poverty is defined as:
b) Look at all these poor people! They can barely afford their cell phones!
... then it will never be eliminated, because there will always be a bottom 5%, even as the wealth of that bottom 5% continuously increases. The poor in the U.S., for example, have never been better off then they are today. And it may well turn out that living in an unequal society (U.S.) results in more wealth for the poorest even over living in a society where everyone is equal (Soviet Union)--but is equally poor.