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No. The speech is a clear characterization of the fallacy because it's deliberately exaggerated and sarcastic.
by csense 14y ago
No. The speech is a clear characterization of the fallacy because it's deliberately exaggerated and sarcastic.
- praptak 14y agoI considered this possibility but I think it is false because this kind of fallacy just doesn't occur in real life. I find it more believable that the author was just trying to ridicule the exaggerated rhetoric of both sides.