2 ms·
Most probably because someone didn't get the sarcasm contained in the speech.
by praptak 14y ago
Most probably because someone didn't get the sarcasm contained in the speech.
- csense 14y agoNo. The speech is a clear characterization of the fallacy because it's deliberately exaggerated and sarcastic.
- praptak 14y agoI considered this possibility but I think it is false because this kind of fallacy just doesn't occur in real life. I find it more believable that the author was just trying to ridicule the exaggerated rhetoric of both sides.