5 ms·
Why is it considered a "fallacy"?
by galactus 14y ago
Why is it considered a "fallacy"?
- cwoebker 14y agoWell I think thats cause on the one hand a supporter might consider " the oil of conversation, the philosophic wine, the ale that is consumed when good fellows get together..." as true while another might consider "the devil's brew, the poison scourge, the bloody monster, that defiles innocence" as true. Depending on ones opinion something is true for one but not true for another. A person might only be able to see their own side of things without allowing other opinions. So I guess fallacy is a somewhat appropriate term here:)
- simias 14y agoI guess it could be considered very similar to the "no true scotsman" fallacy. "If by scotsman you mean..." Not sure what it has to do on the frontpage though.
- mikedmiked 14y agoIts a type of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relativist_fallacy http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relativist_fallacy
- wmat 14y agoBecause the answers to "if -by whiskey" you mean this, or you mean that, render the argument that alcohol should be banned as unsound. One can argue equally each side of the argument depending on the definition of alcohol they choose.
- praptak 14y agoMost probably because someone didn't get the sarcasm contained in the speech.
- csense 14y agoNo. The speech is a clear characterization of the fallacy because it's deliberately exaggerated and sarcastic.
- praptak 14y agoI considered this possibility but I think it is false because this kind of fallacy just doesn't occur in real life. I find it more believable that the author was just trying to ridicule the exaggerated rhetoric of both sides.