It has been pointed out before that although we know of no cultures which used a bijective base number system (well, besides base 1!) it might not be immediatel

It has been pointed out before that although we know of no cultures which used a bijective base number system (well, besides base 1!) it might not be immediately obvious if they did. I think it was in a paper which was about how many times the bijective base system had been independently reinvented by mathematicians.