This "article" is complete crap. It assumes that you can somehow translate "the right of the people" to "the right of the state". That is only possible if wor

This "article" is complete crap. It assumes that you can somehow translate "the right of the people" to "the right of the state". That is only possible if words have no meaning. The Constitution uses the phrase "right of the people" 3 times... A1> ...or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances. A2> ...the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed. A4> The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated... Believing that they didn't actually mean "the people" in Amendment 2, but meant it everywhere else, is convenient but not rational.