3 ms·

The umlaut does mean that to a Swede it is not the same word sound at all. I can only guess that is why it was allowed?

• sureMan6 2mo ago
  The sound is still very close in this situation (ä before r) my guess is they didn't have the Spanish sarna on their radar
  • aakast 2mo ago
    To me, a dane, that would be like saying "sarna" and "særna" is the same. They're not.
  • hnarn 2mo ago
    > The sound is still very close What do you base this on? Do you speak Swedish? Did you look up the phonetics? They are no more similar than A and E in English.