> If it is all relative, then how is she determining that someone has good or bad taste? Is there anything between moral relativism and mathematical proof? So

> If it is all relative, then how is she determining that someone has good or bad taste? Is there anything between moral relativism and mathematical proof? Social proof. Everyone has taste and everyone's taste in a given space is influenced and informed by the taste of others. It's mostly a consensus model. Newer members of a given community arise into said community and learn from it what "good" means, which can sound authoritarian but is really just... voluntary. If you like, for example, mens formal wear you will follow publications and noted figures in the mens formal wear space, you will learn what "good" means to them, and will emulate it out of a desire to fit in with them. As you get more knowledgeable in that space, you will develop your taste, enhanced by them, and ideally eventually contribute your own ideas to that mix. Some will be accepted, some will be rejected, again by group consensus. It's a lot like language. If you want to speak a language you have to learn it first. If you go to France and simply blurt out French words at people, even with perfect annunciation, you will be incomprehensible to them. You learn structure, sentences, how to communicate ideas, how to inflect tone. How to tell the difference between telling someone to fuck off when they cut you off in traffic versus telling them to fuck off when they make a horrific pun. And, as people speak that language and use it daily, it will reliably change. The meanings of so many words in every language today are wildly different than they were even a hundred years ago.