4 ms·
No, the succession (Sanskrit, Greek, Latin, post-Latin) was given mainly in terms of the apogee - one peak follows the other in time. When I wrote «Sanskrit ent
by mdp2021 3mo ago
No, the succession (Sanskrit, Greek, Latin, post-Latin) was given mainly in terms of the apogee - one peak follows the other in time. When I wrote «Sanskrit entered into Greek, Greek into Latin, Latin into English» I described the phenomenon, not the fact.
The literal matter (of direct inheritance) was meaningless to me in the composition, because the whole point was not and is not "what took from what": the whole point is the contribution that those languages give in the understanding of the current languages they informed.
- schoen 3mo agoI don't really understand what you mean by "entered into" here, unless you mean loanwords.
- mdp2021 3mo ago> what you mean by Only, simply, non technically, that Sanskrit literature happened, then (non-committal irrelevant sketchy for-purpose-of-representation "then") Greek literature happened and you can find the Sanskrit terms modified (not literally them Sanskrit terms, more crisply the presence of the roots) into the Greek terms, and then (again) Latin literature happened, and you can find the Sanskrit and Greek terms modified into the Latin ones, etc. Phenomenon: "one [as-if] entered into the other"; reality: "a common Language is revealed in their terminology"; the important part: "we can better define the terminology of current languages that share that property through the consideration of the languages that _substantially_ constitute their roots".