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From the beginning. Ownership is intangible. It exists only because of the collective consent to laws. The difference between ownership of a physical object an
by jfengel 4mo ago
From the beginning. Ownership is intangible. It exists only because of the collective consent to laws.
The difference between ownership of a physical object and ownership of an intellectual one is a matter of conventional. It's easier to define ownership of an object that is excludable, but that's human convenience, not a physical law.
- TacticalCoder 4mo agoSome dogs have a concept of items belonging to them. Early humans had weapons and, with our lizard mind, things wouldn't go well when neanderthal B considered neanderthal A's weapon was now is. They also had "homes": caves/camps that belonged to them. Fighting physically for ownership predates fighting judicially for ownership. To the extent that you can "own" another animal: the ownership of a female by a male is definitely a thing in the animal kingdom. And before the first law was ever written, human slavery (estimated to be at least 4000 BC, with mentions in the first law ever written) did exist too. Ownership predates the law that later on codified the concept of ownership.
- andai 4mo agoThe geese at my pond also seem to think it belongs to them :)
- microgpt 4mo agoSo Neanderthals had copyright law and if they didn't, their society would have fallen apart? Is that why it did fall apart?