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The article spells it out clearly: charging them with violating sanctions law by directly or indirectly making economic resources available to EU-sanctioned ent
by msh 5mo ago
The article spells it out clearly: charging them with violating sanctions law by directly or indirectly making economic resources available to EU-sanctioned entities.
- deleted 5mo ago[deleted]
- htx80nerd 5mo ago>"making economic resources available to EU-sanctioned entities." this is very vague
- antonvs 4mo agoIt comes from EU law. E.g. Council Regulation No 269/2014 defines economic resources as "assets of every kind, whether tangible or intangible, movable or immovable, which are not funds but may be used to obtain funds, goods or services." (https://finance.ec.europa.eu/system/files/2020-06/200619-opinion-financial-sanctions_en.pdf https://finance.ec.europa.eu/system/files/2020-06/200619-opi...) And of course "EU-sanctioned entities" is a rather well-defined list, details here: https://data.europa.eu/data/datasets/consolidated-list-of-persons-groups-and-%09entities-subject-to-eu-financial-sanctions https://data.europa.eu/data/datasets/consolidated-list-of-pe...
- cryptoegorophy 5mo agoSanctions thing is such a hypocrisy. Russia pumped through ukraine about $1B worth of gas PER DAY after the war started and continued for about 2 years, yet they sanctioned some companies that were like a drop in the ocean of those billions paid to Putin