3 ms·
Why did the previous owners sell?
by xnx 6mo ago
Why did the previous owners sell?
- nyeah 6mo agoIn theory, the high share price driven by the LBO offer.
- xnx 6mo agoSeems reasonable for two consenting parties to mutually agree to a deal.
- nyeah 6mo agoIt can be, sure. But a two-way deal might also affect third parties. Example: what if Adleman hires Rivest to put laxative in Shamir's soup? Two consenting parties have made a deal. Shamir freely chooses to eat his soup, despite knowing that he has only imperfect information. So that scenario works out as desired. But intrusive government regulation might come into play. Maybe the state prohibits poisoning soup. That harms the free market, and it's wrong. But, perversely, Shamir might benefit (at Adleman and Rivest's expense).