3 ms·
I responded to your post above which said this: > * The progression of prevalence of hEDS over the years has gone from 1/50K, 1/15k, 1/5k, to 1/500 which is in
by Aurornis 6mo ago
I responded to your post above which said this:
> * The progression of prevalence of hEDS over the years has gone from 1/50K, 1/15k, 1/5k, to 1/500 which is insane.
The prevalence of hEDS is not 1/500. I am not using outdated criteria, I am using the currently accepted numbers.
I'm really not interested in this conversation where you introduce conspiracy theories or try to act like you were talking about different conditions.
- cjbgkagh 6mo agoYou seem to be stuck on this point. We agree that going by the 2017 diagnostic criteria for hEDS people are only diagnosed at a rate of 1/3100 to 1/5000. But I ask; * What’s the prevalence of HSD? * Is there a meaningful difference between hEDS and HSD, i.e. how does one tell them apart except by severity? * And would a history of 1/150K (1960s) to 1/50K (1980s) to 1/15K (1990s) to 1/5K (2000s) not suggest a prior history of under diagnosis? How can you be so sure that this time they have it right?