17 ms·
That's not really the reason. Even in a civil case, the first amendment certainly would apply to whatever laws allow the civil case to happen. However, the fir
by TheCoelacanth 6mo ago
That's not really the reason. Even in a civil case, the first amendment certainly would apply to whatever laws allow the civil case to happen.
However, the first amendment is not absolute. Defamation is still a thing in the US. The first amendment creates a higher bar than many other countries (especially for public figures, but the victims in this case aren't public figures), but it is still possible.