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islam wasn't the only religion to have an empire. and islam spread through voluntary conversion, for hundreds of years the subjects of the islamic empires remai

by 22122 6mo ago

islam wasn't the only religion to have an empire. and islam spread through voluntary conversion, for hundreds of years the subjects of the islamic empires remained majority the pre conquest religion. also no muslim empire ever conquered indonesia and malaysia, yet they are two muslim majority countries today.

SilverElfin 6mo ago
> islam spread through voluntary conversion False. > hundreds of years the subjects of the islamic empires remained majority the pre conquest religion Even if this was true, which I dispute, Islam imposes all sorts of methods to oppress other religions. Like special taxes for those who aren’t Muslims. > no muslim empire ever conquered indonesia and malaysia, yet they are two muslim majority countries today And now these countries have inhumane systems like sharia courts.
- basilgohar 6mo ago
  You can dispute but you're still wrong. The majority of people under Islamic rule historically were non-Muslims but were afforded far greater rights than other societies, such as freedom or worship, protection, the right to their own laws, and the right to Islam's laws as well if they wanted. And yes, they were taxed. Muslims paid zakat, non-Muslims paid jizyah. We can't make non-Muslims pay a religious tax, so they paid a different one. You make that sound like it's a bad thing. Also, what you said about Malaysia and Indonesia is bizarrely bad and incorrect. It's not worth replying to you, you just spew lies like a Zionist. Oh wait...
  - SilverElfin 6mo ago
    Are you seriously trying to revise taxation of other religions into an “alternative” when it clearly was meant to discriminate and oppress them? The Quran literally says the jizya is about fighting those who don’t believe in “god”, to subdue them. You are spreading revisionist misinformation, but it’s also so obvious and easy to disprove with a quick search. Why even try to spin it this way?
    - khaledh 6mo ago
      > The Quran literally says the jizya is about fighting those who don’t believe in “god”, to subdue them Please quote this part from the Quran. I'd like to learn more.
      - goldfishgold 6mo ago
        “Fight against those who do not believe in Allāh or in the Last Day and who do not consider unlawful what Allāh and His Messenger have made unlawful and who do not adopt the religion of truth [i.e., Islām] from those who were given the Scripture - [fight] until they give the jizyah willingly while they are humbled.“ https://quran.com/9/29?translations=131%2C20 https://quran.com/9/29?translations=131%2C20
        khaledh 5mo ago
        Notice the four characteristics mentioned here (all of them must be satisfied): - do not believe in Allāh or in the Last Day - do not consider unlawful what Allāh and His Messenger have made unlawful - do not adopt the religion of truth (doesn't necessarily mean Islam, since true Christianity and Judaism believe in one God) - from those who were given the Scripture. That includes Muslims themselves by the way, since they were given a scripture. Elsewhere in the Quran when it refers to Christians and Jews it says "People of the scripture". In other areas it mentions "Those who were given the scripture", which includes Muslims. What it essentially says: if you do not follow the law of the land, whether you are a Christian, Jew, or a Muslim, there are consequences. Every nation has laws, and if you break those laws you will be prosecuted. In this case it says those will have to pay a "fine".
        goldfishgold 5mo ago
        I don't know Arabic, but I read the English differently. I see "fight against those who X, and those who B, and those who C" as different groups, all of whom one is supposed to fight against. I find it quite hard to read this passage like you do and see this as evidence of equality of treatment between Muslims and non-Muslims. Even the translator interprets 'religion of truth' to mean Islam. Plus I think in general you're ignoring the pretty hostile tone of this passage. The jizyah is explicitly intended to be a humiliation ("humbling"). I was skeptical, but I think this passages is strong evidence that the jizyah was intended to "discriminate and oppress" non-Muslims.
  - jon_adler 6mo ago
    Jizyah wasn’t at the same rate as zakat and its rate wasn’t uniform. It was often used to humiliate, reminding non Muslims of their subordinate status under Islamic law

by 22122 6mo ago

SilverElfin 6mo ago

> islam spread through voluntary conversion False. > hundreds of years the subjects of the islamic empires remained majority the pre conquest religion Even if this was true, which I dispute, Islam imposes all sorts of methods to oppress other religions. Like special taxes for those who aren’t Muslims. > no muslim empire ever conquered indonesia and malaysia, yet they are two muslim majority countries today And now these countries have inhumane systems like sharia courts.

basilgohar 6mo ago
You can dispute but you're still wrong. The majority of people under Islamic rule historically were non-Muslims but were afforded far greater rights than other societies, such as freedom or worship, protection, the right to their own laws, and the right to Islam's laws as well if they wanted. And yes, they were taxed. Muslims paid zakat, non-Muslims paid jizyah. We can't make non-Muslims pay a religious tax, so they paid a different one. You make that sound like it's a bad thing. Also, what you said about Malaysia and Indonesia is bizarrely bad and incorrect. It's not worth replying to you, you just spew lies like a Zionist. Oh wait...
- SilverElfin 6mo ago
  Are you seriously trying to revise taxation of other religions into an “alternative” when it clearly was meant to discriminate and oppress them? The Quran literally says the jizya is about fighting those who don’t believe in “god”, to subdue them. You are spreading revisionist misinformation, but it’s also so obvious and easy to disprove with a quick search. Why even try to spin it this way?
  - khaledh 6mo ago
    > The Quran literally says the jizya is about fighting those who don’t believe in “god”, to subdue them Please quote this part from the Quran. I'd like to learn more.
    - goldfishgold 6mo ago
      “Fight against those who do not believe in Allāh or in the Last Day and who do not consider unlawful what Allāh and His Messenger have made unlawful and who do not adopt the religion of truth [i.e., Islām] from those who were given the Scripture - [fight] until they give the jizyah willingly while they are humbled.“ https://quran.com/9/29?translations=131%2C20 https://quran.com/9/29?translations=131%2C20
      - khaledh 5mo ago
        Notice the four characteristics mentioned here (all of them must be satisfied): - do not believe in Allāh or in the Last Day - do not consider unlawful what Allāh and His Messenger have made unlawful - do not adopt the religion of truth (doesn't necessarily mean Islam, since true Christianity and Judaism believe in one God) - from those who were given the Scripture. That includes Muslims themselves by the way, since they were given a scripture. Elsewhere in the Quran when it refers to Christians and Jews it says "People of the scripture". In other areas it mentions "Those who were given the scripture", which includes Muslims. What it essentially says: if you do not follow the law of the land, whether you are a Christian, Jew, or a Muslim, there are consequences. Every nation has laws, and if you break those laws you will be prosecuted. In this case it says those will have to pay a "fine".
        goldfishgold 5mo ago
        I don't know Arabic, but I read the English differently. I see "fight against those who X, and those who B, and those who C" as different groups, all of whom one is supposed to fight against. I find it quite hard to read this passage like you do and see this as evidence of equality of treatment between Muslims and non-Muslims. Even the translator interprets 'religion of truth' to mean Islam. Plus I think in general you're ignoring the pretty hostile tone of this passage. The jizyah is explicitly intended to be a humiliation ("humbling"). I was skeptical, but I think this passages is strong evidence that the jizyah was intended to "discriminate and oppress" non-Muslims.
- jon_adler 6mo ago
  Jizyah wasn’t at the same rate as zakat and its rate wasn’t uniform. It was often used to humiliate, reminding non Muslims of their subordinate status under Islamic law