4 ms·
So if one has income tax and property tax separate (which I guess happens now) then presumably one has also codified that income is _not_ property (which I gues
by alkonaut 7mo ago
So if one has income tax and property tax separate (which I guess happens now) then presumably one has also codified that income is _not_ property (which I guess is the more common state of affairs )?
- _b 7mo agoIf ordinary laws could redefine words in the constitution, then every constitutional right and protection you care about is undercut.
- alkonaut 7mo agoSeems like this would be something for a Supreme Court to try. It was ordinary laws and cases (presumably) that had established the norms of equating income with property.