> Alternatively, they may try to define high income as a new class of property. Property taxes only have to be uniform within a specific class of property, so i

> Alternatively, they may try to define high income as a new class of property. Property taxes only have to be uniform within a specific class of property, so if they create a new class, then it would be uniform for that class. If nothing else, from a rhetorical/argumentative perspective I am actually really interested in hearing a coherent argument that your 1,000,001st dollar is a difference class of property than your 999,999th.