Well now you're not making any sense. Is your claim that the deal was not preventing Iran from developing a nuke? Then why does the existence of the agreement

Well now you're not making any sense. Is your claim that the deal was not preventing Iran from developing a nuke? Then why does the existence of the agreement matter either way? Are you saying Iran would magically produce a nuke the very day the deal expired? Then why don't they have one today? How does ending the agreement make it harder for Iran to get a nuke? How does "tearing it up" prevent anything that the agreement itself wasn't preventing?