4 ms·
Nowhere in the article does he "concede he came to the U.S. illegally."
by ghostly_s 8mo ago
Nowhere in the article does he "concede he came to the U.S. illegally."
- 0xy 8mo agoYes it does. He mentions he was able to work because of an Employment Authorization Document associated with his pending I-485 Adjustment of Status, but has been in the US for 20 years. There is no US visa that allows living there for 20 years without work authorization. He entered illegally (or overstayed illegally) then tried to adjust status based on marriage, which is fraud.
- panda-giddiness 8mo agoEntering illegally != Overstaying a visa. That may sound like a distinction without a difference to you, but legally they provide very different avenues for acquiring a residency permit.
- 0xy 8mo agoWe now know he entered under the Visa Waiver Program, which explicitly prohibits adjusting status for any reason. So yeah, it's immigration fraud, and a massive overstay of 20 years. We also now know a judge refused his Habeas corpus petition, and he has a final order of removal -- signed by a judge, not an administrator. He also refused to be deported to Ireland.