4 ms·

Air guns existed sure. There’s a reason those aren’t used by the military today, they just aren’t that dangerous.

by Retric 9mo ago

kube-system 9mo ago
They're deadly and rapid fire. But again, in historical context, the point of the 2A was to permit people to own the most deadly weapons of war that existed at that time.
- Retric 9mo ago
  > They’re deadly and rapid fire So are a pile of stones, it’s the degree of risk to the public that matters not some arbitrary classification. Ignoring differences is degree here isn’t enough to win the argument.
  - kube-system 9mo ago
    That is an argument that people make today. Where was that part of the decision making process in 1789?
    - Retric 9mo ago
      Firearms (ops Arms) was used rather than weapons suggesting some level of consideration here. They had cannons and warships back then. That bit about a well regulated militia suggests limits on what exactly was permissible. But obviously we don’t have direct knowledge of every conversation.
      - ndriscoll 9mo ago
        The point about cannons and warships actually makes it very clear about what the authors' intent was re: balance of risk; at the time, private ownership of artillery was completely legal and unregulated. Private citizens owned warships with dozens of live cannons that could bombard coastal cities, and didn't even need to file paperwork to do so! A warship can cause quite a bit more mayhem than a glock.
        Retric 9mo ago
        Legal yes, protected by the constitution without constraint no. Both the use of Arms being man portable weapons and militia makes a very clear distinction.
      - kube-system 9mo ago
        > Firearms was used rather than weapons Where? The constitution says neither. It says "Arms" Regardless, the constitution specifically makes reference to the private ownership of cannons and warships. > To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Letter_of_marque https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Letter_of_marque
        Retric 9mo ago
        Arms at the time meant man portable weapons as distinct from cannons or trebuchet etc. Just posted about firearms so many times used the wrong word here.
        bluGill 9mo ago
        Cannons were regularly privately owned at the time
        Retric 9mo ago
        For sake of argument I’ll agree, but again by explicitly using arms here they where excluding them from constitutional protection not banning them.

Air guns existed sure. There’s a reason those aren’t used by the military today, they just aren’t that dangerous.

by Retric 9mo ago

Air guns existed sure. There’s a reason those aren’t used by the military today, they just aren’t that dangerous.

They're deadly and rapid fire. But again, in historical context, the point of the 2A was to permit people to own the most deadly weapons of war that existed at that time.

Retric 9mo ago
> They’re deadly and rapid fire So are a pile of stones, it’s the degree of risk to the public that matters not some arbitrary classification. Ignoring differences is degree here isn’t enough to win the argument.
- kube-system 9mo ago
  That is an argument that people make today. Where was that part of the decision making process in 1789?
  - Retric 9mo ago
    Firearms (ops Arms) was used rather than weapons suggesting some level of consideration here. They had cannons and warships back then. That bit about a well regulated militia suggests limits on what exactly was permissible. But obviously we don’t have direct knowledge of every conversation.
    - ndriscoll 9mo ago
      The point about cannons and warships actually makes it very clear about what the authors' intent was re: balance of risk; at the time, private ownership of artillery was completely legal and unregulated. Private citizens owned warships with dozens of live cannons that could bombard coastal cities, and didn't even need to file paperwork to do so! A warship can cause quite a bit more mayhem than a glock.
      - Retric 9mo ago
        Legal yes, protected by the constitution without constraint no. Both the use of Arms being man portable weapons and militia makes a very clear distinction.
    - kube-system 9mo ago
      > Firearms was used rather than weapons Where? The constitution says neither. It says "Arms" Regardless, the constitution specifically makes reference to the private ownership of cannons and warships. > To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Letter_of_marque https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Letter_of_marque
      - Retric 9mo ago
        Arms at the time meant man portable weapons as distinct from cannons or trebuchet etc. Just posted about firearms so many times used the wrong word here.
        bluGill 9mo ago
        Cannons were regularly privately owned at the time
        Retric 9mo ago
        For sake of argument I’ll agree, but again by explicitly using arms here they where excluding them from constitutional protection not banning them.