4 ms·

both are correct, "were" is more precise and formal

• curtisholmes 14y ago
  No, "was" implies the past indicative, which means "If I was your cloud provider in the past", whereas "were" implies the subjunctive mood, which expresses "various states of unreality such as wish, emotion, possibility, judgment, opinion, necessity, or action that has not yet occurred" (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subjunctive_mood http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subjunctive_mood)
  • Evbn 14y ago
    I thought "If I had been" is past indicative, and "If I was" is ungrammatical. Insofar as hodgepodgy English has real rules anyway...
    • prodigal_erik 14y ago
      "Had been" is the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pluperfect http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pluperfect, further into the past than "was".
  • andrewcooke 14y ago
    but the subjunctive is used inconsistently in english, and less so in england than in the usa. it's really not as clear as you assert.