3 ms·
If someone doesn't get a vaccination, and as a result gets infected, and then as a result passes the disease to someone else, then this should be treated as equ
by pfdietz 9mo ago
If someone doesn't get a vaccination, and as a result gets infected, and then as a result passes the disease to someone else, then this should be treated as equivalent to harming someone by causing an accident through reckless driving.
What is needed here are laws making it a crime to conceal that you have or had a communicable disease, so infections can be tracked and fault determined.
- B1FIDO 9mo agoIt should be a crime to accuse someone who is innocent of any intent to cause harm, and a crime to manufacture evidence to that effect, because basically you could never prove that Alice infected Bob, let alone with malicious intent. It is hysterical and illogical for people to make these accusations. Get real.
- pfdietz 9mo agoIntent is not needed. Causing awful consequences to others through negligence is already a crime. After all, did a drunk driver intend to run over that child? See also "negligent homicide".
- 46493168 9mo ago>What is needed here are laws making it a crime to conceal that you have or had a communicable disease, so infections can be tracked and fault determined. Absolutely not. We tried this with HIV and it just incentivizes people to not seek treatment, and then they spread the disease more.
- pfdietz 9mo agoThere are many laws that make it illegal to conceal HIV status when that could result in the infection of others.
- 46493168 9mo agoYes and many are being repealed because they were written before modern antiretrovirals and before the medical consensus that undetectable = untransmittable (U=U).