4 ms·
It is proven that there is an infinite number of normal numbers, as quoted in the wiki article you're mentioning (p({a real; a is normal}) = 1).
by cdavid 14y ago
It is proven that there is an infinite number of normal numbers, as quoted in the wiki article you're mentioning (p({a real; a is normal}) = 1).
- lutusp 14y agoYes, because among other things it's clearly implied by "While a general proof can be given that almost all numbers are normal ... " If true, then the set is infinite.