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>The authors provide cross-sectional data across 23 rich nations, showing a strong positive correlation (r~=0.70) between income inequality (Gini coefficient) a
by gruez 10mo ago
>The authors provide cross-sectional data across 23 rich nations, showing a strong positive correlation (r~=0.70) between income inequality (Gini coefficient) and advertising expenditure as a percentage of GDP.
Why only rich nations? Many of the most unequal countries are also poor (or at least, not rich), so why do they get a pass?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Gini_Coefficient_of_Wealth_InEquality_source_(2021).png https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Gini_Coefficient_of_Wealt...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:World_Bank_Inequality_2022.png https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:World_Bank_Inequality_202...
- Herring 10mo agoTake a few quantitative courses (ie statistics). Roughly speaking, you usually want to compare similar-ish groups. It's like if you want to examine the effects of diet on a human body, you can't just mix old and young haphazardly. Advertising spend in Somalia probably works very different than advertising spend in Norway.