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That would be falsifying the country of origin. The fact that the ship sailed from Greece or whatever doesn't change the fact the part was made in France say.
by magicalhippo 10mo ago
That would be falsifying the country of origin. The fact that the ship sailed from Greece or whatever doesn't change the fact the part was made in France say.
- verzali 10mo agoAnd so what? The rule of law hardly seems to matter any more.
- magicalhippo 10mo agoPoint taken...
- mrtksn 10mo agoNope, you form a company in Italy and sell your goods you produce in France to that company. That Italian company ships it the same way you always did. Since Trump is erratic and there's no real trade deal between those countries and thus US doesn't have a case to claim that someone is breaking the rules of origin. Not to even mention that you can't put tariffs on individual EU countries anyway. That's EUs domain. If you think that this wouldn't happen, check out Germany's exports to Kazakstan and other neighbors of Russia after EU started sanctioning Russia. It's not just possible, it's commonplace.
- magicalhippo 10mo ago> Nope, you form a company in Italy and sell your goods you produce in France to that company. Ah, that would indeed be entirely different. Not as quick to get going through.
- deleted 10mo ago[deleted]