> If the proof is correct, Aristotle has a good chance at translating it into Lean How does this depend on the area of mathematics of the proof? I was under th

> If the proof is correct, Aristotle has a good chance at translating it into Lean How does this depend on the area of mathematics of the proof? I was under the impression that it was still difficult to formalize most research areas, even for a human. How close is Aristotle to this frontier?