2 ms·

A person without legs does not stop being disabled because they have no need or desire to walk. The fact remains that should they need or desire to walk in the

A person without legs does not stop being disabled because they have no need or desire to walk. The fact remains that should they need or desire to walk in the future the hinderance will still very much exist. A similar example could be made of someone with gluten intolerance. If they do not eat foods that contain gluten they are still gluten intolerant. They are however still disabled by needing to stay in that situation.

ACow_Adonis 10mo ago
Ah yes, but that results in two problems. Firstly a fish without legs objectively does not have legs, but we do not necessarily call it disabled, even though it clearly lacks a facility. Secondly, the autism spectrum disorders are, as I previously mentioned, not obviously just about deficits of behaviours or functions but also can take in extended and exceptional abilities in some areas and greater sensitivities rather than deficits or lack of an ability, so it is not clear that the entire diagnosis can be defined by deficits or lacking things. The high functioning and Asperger's type diagnosis is not about a universal deficit diagnosis and we do not generally call neuro-typical humans disabled because they lack prodigious activity or interest in math, language, or other subjects, even though that can also objectively be measured and called a deficit.
- roywiggins 10mo ago
  > The high functioning and Asperger's type diagnosis is not about a universal deficit diagnosis To get an Asperger's diagnosis under the DSM-IV you needed some amount of impairment. "Disorder" is in the title of the DSM, if something isn't conceptualized as a disorder it isn't in there. https://www.kennedykrieger.org/stories/interactive-autism-network-ian/about_asds_dsm_iv_criteria_for_aspergers_syndrome https://www.kennedykrieger.org/stories/interactive-autism-ne... The "broader autistic phenotype"- that is, related traits but without impairment- exists but it is not a diagnosis.

ACow_Adonis 10mo ago

Ah yes, but that results in two problems. Firstly a fish without legs objectively does not have legs, but we do not necessarily call it disabled, even though it clearly lacks a facility. Secondly, the autism spectrum disorders are, as I previously mentioned, not obviously just about deficits of behaviours or functions but also can take in extended and exceptional abilities in some areas and greater sensitivities rather than deficits or lack of an ability, so it is not clear that the entire diagnosis can be defined by deficits or lacking things. The high functioning and Asperger's type diagnosis is not about a universal deficit diagnosis and we do not generally call neuro-typical humans disabled because they lack prodigious activity or interest in math, language, or other subjects, even though that can also objectively be measured and called a deficit.

roywiggins 10mo ago
> The high functioning and Asperger's type diagnosis is not about a universal deficit diagnosis To get an Asperger's diagnosis under the DSM-IV you needed some amount of impairment. "Disorder" is in the title of the DSM, if something isn't conceptualized as a disorder it isn't in there. https://www.kennedykrieger.org/stories/interactive-autism-network-ian/about_asds_dsm_iv_criteria_for_aspergers_syndrome https://www.kennedykrieger.org/stories/interactive-autism-ne... The "broader autistic phenotype"- that is, related traits but without impairment- exists but it is not a diagnosis.